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Post by althepirate on Oct 30, 2016 7:49:17 GMT
Can anyone explain the huge, huge number of gay men who formerly had children with female patters, only to divorce? I know one person who did this. Just curious to understand, if the science says it's built-in, how can this happen? I am heterosexual, I could not achieve an erectikn for a male. How do gay men achieve an erection to inpregnate a female? How does this work? Is homosexuality a random trigger? I'm sorry to throw a cat amongst the pigeons but I do know a very old gay man through work who once told me that he did have girlfriends but chose to be gay. I find the whole thing confusing. IMO these people are bi. They may decide to swing one way because they get on better with a particular gender. The people that are turned on by both genders IMO are not gay.
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Post by Quartermaster on Oct 30, 2016 8:31:55 GMT
Crikey, just looked in on this one after a day or two and 10 pages have passed by. No time to read it all, but I assume we are all happy to have gay Rovers players now?!
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Post by Hugo the Elder on Oct 30, 2016 8:41:39 GMT
Crikey, just looked in on this one after a day or two and 10 pages have passed by. No time to read it all, but I assume we are all happy to have gay Rovers players now?! Ass U me. Heh heh. What? Too soon....?
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